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Haramaya University 2006 Batch of Civil Engineering, Haramaya University, Harar (2026)

21/05/2018

Here is The CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMNT Multiple choice Question please Don't forgot to SHARE and LIKE our page
1. Which one of the following represents an
activity
A. excavation for foundation
B. curing of concrete
C. setting of question paper
D. preparation of breakfast
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
2. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
A. An activity of a project is denoted by
an arrow on the net work
B. The tail of the arrow indicates the start
of the activity
C. The head of the arrow indicates the
end of the activity
D. The arrows are drawn to scale from
left to right
E. Each activity consumes a given time.
Answer: Option D

3. The technique for establishing and maintaining
priorities among the various jobs of a project,
is known
A. Event flow scheduling technique
B. Critical ratio scheduling
C. Slotting technique for scheduling
D. Short interval scheduling.
Answer: Option B

4. Mile Stone charts were invented in the year of
A. 1910
B. 1920
C. 1930
D. 1940
E. 1950
Answer: Option D

5. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of
working known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation.
Answer: Option C

6. Pick up the PERT event from the following:
A. Digging of foundation started
B. Digging of foundation completed
C. Laying of concrete started
D. Laying of concrete completed
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

7. If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest
start and finish, LS and LF are latest start and
latest finish time, then the following relation
holds good
A. EF = ES + D
B. LS = LF - D
C. LF = LS + D
D. D = EF - ES
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
8. Final technical authority of a project lies with
A. Assistant Engineer
B. Executive Engineer
C. Superintending Engineer
D. Chief Engineer.
Answer: Option D
9. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is
known
A. Dummy
B. Event
C. Activity
D. Contract.
Answer: Option C

10. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. The float may be positive, zero or
negative
B.
If the float is positive and the activity
is delayed by a period equal to its
total float, the completion of project is
not delayed
C.
If the float of an activity is negative,
delay in its performance is bound to
delay the completion of project
D.
If the float of an activity is zero, the
activity is critical and any delay in its
performance will delay the whole
project
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

11. A Milestone chart
A. shows the interdependencies of
various jobs
B. depicts the delay of jobs, if any
C. points outgoing ahead of schedule of
jobs, if any
D. none of these.
Answer: Option D

12. Completion of an activity on CPM network
diagram, is generally known
A. Event
B. Node
C. Connector
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
13. A dummy activity
A. is artificially introduced
B. is represented by a dotted line
C. does not consume time
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

14. Military organisation is known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A

15. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
A. The activity is the time consuming part
of a project
B. The beginning and end of a job, are
called events
C. The activity which consumes maximum
time, is called a node
D. Logically and sequentially connected
activities and events form a network
E. None of these.
Answer: Option C

16. Various activities of a project, are shown on
bar charts by
A. vertical lines
B. horizontal lines
C. dots
D. crosses.
Answer: Option B

17. Time and progress chart of a construction, is
also known as
A. Bar chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Modified Mile stone chart
D. Critical path method chart
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

18. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
A. to concentrate his attention on critical
activities
B.
to divert the resources from non-
critical advanced activities to critical
activities
C.
to be cautious for avoiding any delay
in the critical activities to avoid delay
of the whole project
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

19. The time by which activity completion time
can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is known as
A. duration
B. total flat
C. free float
D. interfering float.
Answer: Option C

20. The artificial activity which indicates that an
activity following it, cannot be started unless
the preceding activity is complete, is known
as
A. event
B. free float
C. dummy
D. constant
Answer: Option C

21. Henry Gantt developed Bar charts for planning
and scheduling of projects in
A. 1880
B. 1900
C. 1920
D. 1940
E. 1950
Answer: Option B

22. The most popular type of organisation used
for Civil Engineering Constructions, is
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation.
Answer: Option A

22. The difference between the time avail-to do a
job and the time required to do the job, is
known as
A. event
B. float
C. duration
D. constraint.
Answer: Option B

23. The object of technical planning, is
A. preparation of specifications
B. preparation of estimates
C. initiating the procurement action of
resources
D. taking remedial action for likely
bottleneck in the ex*****on
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

24. The salient feature of functional organisation is
A. strict adherence to specifications
B. separation of planning and design part
C. each individual maintains functional
efficiency
D. work is properly planned and
distributed
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

25. Critical path method
A. is an improvement upon bar chart
method
B. provides a realistic approach to daily
problems
C. avoids delays which are very common
in bar charts
D.
was invented by Morgan R. Walker of
Dupot and James E. Kalley or
Re*****on U.S.A. in 1957
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

26. CPM is
A. synthesising in concepts
B. is built of activities oriented
programme
C. is based on time estimate
D. is used for repetitive works
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

27. Critical path lies along the activities having
total float
A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. same.
Answer: Option C

28. Construction team means
A. an engineer
B. an architect
C. an owner
D. a contractor
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

29. Pick up the correct network for the activities
of pouring concrete, er****on of form work,
removal of form work and curing of concrete
from the following:
A.
1. Pouring of Concrete
2. Er****on of form work
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of form work
B.
1. Er****on of form work
2. Pouring of concrete
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of form work
C.
1. Removal of form work
2. Er****on of form work
3. Pouring of concrete
4. Curing of concrete
D.
1. Pouring of concrete
2. Curing of concrete
3. Er****on of form work
4. Removal of form work
Answer: Option B
30 . A construction schedule is prepared after
collecting
A. number of operations
B. output of labour
C. output of machinery
D. quantity of various items
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

31. Site order book is used for recording
A. instructions by the executive engineers
B. construction measurements
C. issue of store equipments
D. names of the casual labour.
Answer: Option A
32. The main principle of an organisation, is
A. unity of command
B. cohegency
C. effective control at all levels
D. delegation of authority
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

33. The estimated time required to perform an
activity, is known as
A. event
B. dummy
C. duration
D. float.
Answer: Option C
34. A CPM family includes
A. CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
B. CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
C. MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
D. CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

35. The time which results in the leasi, possible
construction cost of an activity, is known
A. normal time
B. slow time
C. crash time
D. standard time.
Answer: Option B

36. If the total float and duration of an activity are
5 and 10 days respectively, the particular
activity can be
A. started 5 days later
B. completed 5 days later
C. performed at slower rate in 15 days
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

37. Works costing less than 20,000 Birr. are
treated as
A. projects
B. major projects
C. minor projects
D. all the above.
Answer: Option C

38. A critical ratio scheduling
A.
establishes the relative priorities
among various activities on a common
basis
B. determines the status of each activity
C. adjusts automatically changes in
activity progress
D. is a dynamic system
E. none of these.
Answer: Option E
39. Bar charts are suitable for
A. minor works
B. major works
C. large projects
D. all the Above.
Answer: Option A

40. The first method invented for planning
projects, was
A. Bar chart method
B. Milestone chart
C. Critical path method (CPM)
D. Programme Evaluation and Review
Technique (PERT)
Answer: Option A

41. If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence
time, total activity slack(s), is equal to
A. LST-EST
B. LFT-EFT
C. TL-EFT
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

42. The Overall in-charge of an organisation at the
site responsible for the ex*****on of the
works, is
A. Executive Engineer
B. Engineer
C. Junior Engineer
D. Sub overseer
E. Assistant Engineer.
Answer: Option B

43. Modular co-ordination of construction means
proper
A. planning
B. designing
C. ex*****on
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

44. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. CPM analysis is activity oriented
B. PERT analysis is event oriented
C.
CPM does not make any allowance for
the uncertainties in the duration of
time
D. In CPM, the time is related to cost
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
45. If t is the duration of an activity, t1 is the
latest finish possible moment of its preceding
activity and t 2 is the earliest start possible
moment, the independent float of the activity
is
A. (t 1 - t 2 ) - t
B. t - (t1 - t2)
C. (t 1 + t2 ) - t
D. t + ( t1 - t2)
Answer: Option A

46. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. Earliest expected time is denoted by
TE
B. Latest occurrence time is denoted by
TL
C. Contractual obligation time is denoted
by Ts
D. Latest occurrence time is taken as
contractual obligation time
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
47. For the supply of materials for concrete, form
work reinforcing and placing of concrete,
removal of form work and curing of concrete,
number of bar(s) required on bar chart, is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option A

48. For the ex*****on of a project, a contractor is
A. a person
B. a firm
C. an agency
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

49. Railway projects are treated as
A. light construction
B. heavy construction
C. industrial construction
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
50. The critical activity has
A. maximum float
B. minimum float
C. zero float
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C

51. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A.
The difference of latest occurence time
and earliest expected time, is called
slack
B.
The activities connecting the events
having zero slack, lie on the critical
path
C. The critical path consumes the
maximum time
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D

52. Pre-tender stage requires
A. acquisition of land
B. selection of site
C. fmalisation of alignment of work
D. fmalisation of designs and preparation
of estimate
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

23/09/2017

For All Haramaya University student Here is the schedule of 2017-2018 Acadamic Calendar

SEMESTER I -2017/18

September 14, 2017 መስከረም 04 , 2010 Staff Report to duty

October 06, 2017 መስከረም 26, 2010 Boarding Opens for 2nd Year & above students

October 09 & 10, 2017 መስከረም 29 እና 30, 2010 Registration for 2 nd Year & above students

October 11, 2017 ጥቅምት 01, 2010 Last Date for Late Registration (2nd Year & above)
with penalty

October 15 &16, 2017
ጥቅምት 05 & 06,
2010 Boarding Opens for 1ST year students

October 16, 2017 ጥቅምት 06, 2010 First Semester Class Begins for 2nd year & above

October 17 -23, 2017 ጥቅምት 07 -13, 2010 Orientation and Department Selection for 1ST Year
Students

October 24 & 25, 2017 ጥቅምት 14 እና 15,2010 Registration for 1 STYear Students

October 26, 2017 ጥቅምት 16, 2010 First Semester Class Begins for1 STYear Students

October 26, 2017 ጥቅምት 16, 2010 Last Date for Late Registration (1stYear) with
Penalty

October 30 & 31, 2017
ጥቅምት 20 እና 21, 2010 Courses Add/Drop Period for 2 nd Year & above

November 09 & 10, 2017
ጥቅምት 30 እና ሕዳር 01, 2010 Courses Add/Drop Period for 1 stYear

January 10, 2018 ጥር 02, 2010
Last Date for Readmission Application to the
respective Colleges/Institute/Academy for Semester
II-2017/18

January 24, 2018 ጥር 16, 2010 End of Semester I, 2017/18 classes for 2nd Year &
above

January 31, 2018 ጥር 23, 2010 End of Semester I, 2017/18 classes for 1ST Year
Students

January 25- February 05, 2018 ጥር 17-28, 2010 Semester I, 2017/18 Final Exam Period for 2nd year
& above students

February 01-09, 2018 ጥር 24-የካቲት 02, 2010 Semester I, 2017/18 Final Exam Period for 1st Year
Students

February 10-18, 2018 የካቲት 03–11, 2010 Inter -semester Break

SEMESTER II – 2017/18
February 19 & 20, 2018 የካቲት 12 እና 13, 2010 Registration

February 21, 2018 የካቲት 14, 2010 Semester II Class Begins

February 21, 2018 የካቲት 14, 2010 Last Date for Late Registration with Penalty

March 05 & 06, 2018 የካቲት 26 & 27, 2010 Course Add/Drop period

May 25, 2018 ግንቦት 17, 2010
Last Date for Readmission Application to the
respective Colleges/Institute/Academy for Semester
I-2018/19

June 01, 2018 ግንቦት 24, 2010 End of Semester II, 2017/18 Classes

June 04-14, 2018 ግንቦት 27-ሰኔ 07, 2010 Semester II, 2017/18 Final Examination Period

July 07, 2018 ሰኔ 30, 2010 Graduation Day
July 13, 2018 ሐምሌ 06, 2010 Dormitory Closes for Graduating Class

09/09/2017

Here the Next 50 Question of SOIL MECHANICS AND FOUNDATION ENGINEERING Multiple Question With is Explanation in Workout Area .
So Please Dont Miss To SHARE and LIKE our Page for others .
NB if you have any question ,doubt and suggestion please write us through comment ,Message and our Email hrucivilengineering .com

51. The compression index of a soil
A. decreases with an increase in the
liquid limit
B. increases with an increase in the liquid
limit
C. decreases with an increase in the
plastic limit
D. is not related with plastic limit.
Answer: Option B

52. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A.
The void space between the soil
grains, is filled partly with air and
partly with water
B. In perfectly saturated soil, the voids
are completely filled with water
C. In dry soil, the voids are completely
filled with air
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

53. For a homogeneous earth dam 50 m high
having 2 m free broad, a flow net was
constructed and the results were : Number of
potential drops = 2.4 Number of flow channels
= 0.4. If coefficiency of permeability of the
dam mateiral is 3 x 10 -3 cm3/sec, the
discharge per metre length of dam, is
[A]. 12 x 10-5 m 3/sec
[B]. 24 x 10-3 m 3/sec
[C]. 6 x 10 -5 m3 /sec
[D]. 24 x 10-5 m 3/sec
Answer: Option D
Discharge Q = kH(Nf/Nd).
Where k = Coefficient of permeability = 3x10^3
cm^2/sec.
H = Ht. of water or head = 50 - 2 = 48 m =
4800 cm.
= 3x10^3*4800*(0.4/2.4).
= 2.4 cm^3/s.
= 24x10 μ m^3/s.

54. For shear strength, triaxial shear test is
suitable because
A. it can be performed under all three
drainage conditions
B.
precise measurement of the pore
pressure and volume change during
the test is possible
C. stress distribution on the failure plane,
is uniform
D.
state of stress within the specimen
during any stage of the test as well as
at failure, is completely determined
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

55. Number of piles required to support a column,
is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option C

56. The soil moisture driven off by heat, is called
A. free water
B. hydroscopic water
C. gravity water
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B

57. If the specific gravity of a soil particle of 0.05
cm diameter is 2.67, its terminal velocity
while settling in distilled water of viscosity,
0.01 poise, is
A. 0.2200 cm/sec
B. 0.2225 cm/sec
C. 0.2250 cm/sec
D. 0.2275 cm/sec
E. 0.2300 cm/sec
Answer: Option D

58. The direct shear test suffers from the following
disadvantage:
A. Drain condition cannot be controlled
B. Pore water pressure cannot be
measured
C. Shear stress on the failure plane is not
uniform.
D.
The area under the shear and vertical
loads does not remain constant
throughout the test
E. All the above.
Answer: Option C

59. For a clay slope of height of 10 m, the
stability number is 0.05, γ = 2.0 t/m 3, C = 2.5
t/m 2, the critical height of the slope of the
soil, is
[A]. 4.0 m
[B]. 12.5 m
[C]. 25.0 m
[D]. 15.0 m
Answer: Option C

Sn = C / Y*Fc*H.
At critical stage Fc = 1, H = Hc.
So, Sn = C /Y*Hc.
Hence, Hc = C/ Y*Sn = 2.5/2*0.05 = 25.

Hc = C/(y*Sn) y - unit weight , Sn - Stability
Number.
60. If σ0 ' and σ' represent initial and increased
pressure ; e 0 and e void ratios corresponding
to initial and increased pressure ; and C 0 the
compression index (dimensionless), then, the
virgin compression curve as expressed by
Terzaghi empirical formula is
A. e = e 0 + Cc log10 σ'/σ 0'
B. e = e 0 - C c log10 σ'/σ 0'
C. e 0 = e - C c log10 σ'/σ 0'
D. e 0 = e + Cc log10 σ'/σ 0'
Answer: Option B
61. The equation τ = C + σ tan φ is given by
A. Rankine
B. Coulomb
C. Culaman
D. Mohr.
Answer: Option B
62. You are given a sample of soil containing
coarse grains to determine its water content,
you will use
A. pycnometer
B. oven-drying method
C. calcium carbide method
D. alcohol method.
Answer: Option A

63. The maximum load carried by a pile, when it
continues to sink without further increase of
load, is known as
A. ultimate load carrying capacity
B. ultimate bearing capacity
C. ultimate bearing resistant
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

64. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following:
A. Compaction has no effect on the
structure of a soil
B. Permeability decreases with increase
in the dry density of a compacted soil
C.
A wet side compacted soil is more
compressible than a dry side
compacted soil
D. Dry side compaction soils swell more
when given access to moisture
E. None of the these.
Answer: Option A

65. The soil which contains finest grain particles,
is
A. coarse sand
B. fine sand
C. silt
D. clay.
Answer: Option D
66. The angle between the directions of the failure
and the major principal plane, is equal to
A. 90° + effective angle of shearing
resistance
B. 90° + half of the angle of shearing
resistance
C. 45° - half of the angle of shearing
resistance
D. 45° + half of the angle of shearing
resistance.
Answer: Option D

67. The compressibility of clays, is caused due
to:
A. expulsion of double layer water from in
between the grains
B. sliping of particles to new positions of
greater density
C. bending of particles as elastic sheets
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

68. A phreatic line is defined as the line within a
dam section below which there are
A. positive equipotential lines
B. positive hydrostatic pressure
C. negative hydrostatic pressure
D. negative equipotential lines
E. none of these.
Answer: Option B

69. The ratio of the difference between the void
ratio of the soil in its loosest state and its
natural void ratio (e) to the difference between
the void ratios in the loosest and fully dense
state, is generally termed as
A. degree of density
B. relativity
C. density index
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
70. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A.
The property of a soil that enables it to
become stiff in a relatively short time
on standing is called thixotropy
B.
The ratio of shear strength in natural
state to the remoulded shear strength
under undrained conditions, is called
degree of sensitivity.
C.
The difference between the undisturbed
shear strength and remoulded shear
strength is known remoulding loss
D.
The tendency of dense sand to expand
on application of shearing load, is
known as dilatancy
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
71. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. Illite bond is weaker than Kaolinite
bond
B. Illite bond is stronger than
montmorillonite bond
C. Illites do not swell when wet
D.
Illites are composed of two silica
tetrahedralsheets with a central
octahedral sheet
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

72. Determination of water content of a soil
sample suspected to contain gypsum is made
by drying the sample for longer period at a
temperature not more than
A. 60°C
B. 80°C
C. 100°C
D. 110°C
Answer: Option B

73. Water formed transported soil is
A. alluvial
B. marine
C. lacustrine
D. loess.
Answer: Option A
74. A decrease in water content results in a
reduction of the volume of a soil in
A. liquid state
B. plastic state
C. semi solid state
D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
75. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. If the ratio of depth to width is less
than 2, it is shallow foundation
B. If the ratio of depth to width is more
than 2, it is deep foundation
C.
If the ratio of the length to width is
between 1 and 2, it is spread
foundation
D. If the length is large as compared to
width, it is a strip foundation
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
76. The vane shear test is used for the in-situ
determination of the undrained strength of the
intact fully saturated
A. sands
B. clays
C. gravels
D. highly organic soils.
Answer: Option B

77. The specific gravity of quartz, is
A. 2.65
B. 2.72
C. 2.85
D. 2.90
Answer: Option A
78. If the cohesive force, (c ), is 1.5 t/m 2, the
density (γ ) of the soil is 2.0 t/m 3 , factor of
safety ( F ) is 1.5 and stability factor (Sn ) is
0.05, the safe height of the Â§lope, is
[A]. 5 metres
[B]. 8 metres
[C]. 10 metres
[D]. 12 metres
Answer: Option C
Stability factor (Sn) = Mobilized cohesive force/
(Density of soil x Safe height of slope).
Sn = Cm/(γ*H) = C/(Fc*γ*H).
therefore H = C/(Fc*γ*Sn) = 1.5/(1.5*2*0.05) =
10 m.

79. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A.
The phenomenon of quicksand
generally occurs in the cohesionless
soil
B. At critical hydraulic gradient, the
saturated sand becomes quick
C. The critical gradient depends on the
void ratio and the specific gravity
D. The quick sand occurs more in fine
sand and silt than coarse material
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

80.Si particles
A. show dilatancy
B. swell when moist
C. possess high strength when dry
D. disintegrate easily.
Answer: Option A

81. Flow net is used for the determination of
A. quantity of seepage
B. hydrostatic pressure
C. seepage pressure
D. exit gradient
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
82. If the back fill is having a uniform surcharge
of intensity q per unit area, the lateral pressure
will be
A. q times the lateral pressure within the
surface
B. 1/q times the lateral pressure within
the surface
C. equal to a fill of height Z equal to q/r,
where r is the density of the backfill
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C

83. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A.
Isotropic consolidation of clay can be
obtained in the triaxial apparatus under
equal all-round pressure.
B.
If the present effective stress is the
maximum to which the clay has ever
been subjected, it is called normally
consolidated clay
C.
If the present effective stress in the
past was more than present effective
stress, it is called over-consolidated
clay
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D

84. Maximum size of clay particles, is :
A. 0.002 mm
B. 0.04 mm
C. 0.06 mm
D. 0.08 mm
E. 1 mm
Answer: Option A

85. The capillary rise of water
A. depends upon the force responsible
B. increases as the size of the soil
particles increases
C. decreases as the size of the soil
particles decreases
D. is less in wet soil than in dry soil.
Answer: Option A

86. Columbs s wedge theory assumes that
A. back fill is dry, cohesionless,
homogeneous and isotropic
B. slip surface is the plane which passes
through the heel of the wall
C.
sliding wedge itself acts as a rigid
body and the value of earth pressure is
obtained by considering the limiting
equilibrium of the wedge
D. position and direction of the resultant
earth pressure, are known
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

87. If dry density, water density and specific
gravity of solids of a given soil sample are
1.6 g/cc, 1.84 g/cc and 2.56 respectively, the
porosity of the soil sample, is
A. 0.375
B. 0.370
C. 0.380
D. 0.390
Answer: Option A
Dry density of soil is = 1.6g/cc.
Specific gravity of soil = 2.56.
Density of water take it as = 1g/cc.

1.6 = (1*2.56)/(1+e);
e = 0.6;
n = e/1+e;
n = 0.6/(1+0.6);
Then n = 0.375.

88. Through a point in a loaded soil, the principal
stress is maximum on
A. minor principal plane
B. intermediate principal plane
C. major principal plane
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C

89. Pick up the correct statement applicable to
plate load test
A.
Width of the test pit for plate load test
is made five times the width of the
plate
B.
At the centre of the test pit, a hole is
dug out whose size is kept equal to
the size of the test plate
C.
Bottom level of the hole dug at the
centre of the test pit, is kept at the
level of the actual formation
D.
Ratio of the depth of the hole to the
width of the test plate is the same as
the ratio of the depth of the actual
formation to the width of the formation
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

90. Terzaghi's analysis assumes :
A. soil is homogeneous and isotropic
B.
elastic zone has straight boundaries
inclined at ψ = φ to the horizontal and
plastic zones fully developed
C.
failure zones do not extend above the
horizontal plane through the base of
the footing
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

91. A soil sample has passing 0.075 mm sieve =
60% liquid limit = 65% and plastic limit =
40%. The group index of the soil, is
A. 5
B. 20
C. 40
D. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
F = fineness constant.
L.l = liquid limit.
P.l = plastic limit.
Group index = (F-35)[0.2+(0.005)
(Ll-40)]+0.01(F-15)(Pl-10).
G I = (60-35)[.2+(0.005)(65-40)]+0.01(60-15)
(40-10).
Group index = 21.625.

92. The plasticity index is the numerical difference
between
A. liquid limit and plastic limit
B. plastic limit and shrinkage limit
C. liquid limit and shrinkage limit
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
93. Negative skin friction on piles

A. is caused due to relative settlement of
the soil
B. is caused in soft clays
C. decreases the pile capacity
D. all of the above.
Answer: Option D

94. Fine sand possesses
A. good plasticity
B. limited plasticity
C. reasonable plasticity
D. clay.
Answer: Option D

95. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is
A. total load on the bearing area
B. safe load on the bearing area
C. load at which soil fails
D. load at which soil consolidates.
Answer: Option C

96.Transporting and redepositing soils, is done
by
A. water
B. glacier
C. gravity
D. wind
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
97. A moist soil sample of volume 60 cc. weighs
108 g and its dried weight is 86.4 g. If its
absolute density is 2.52, the degree of
saturation is
A. 54%
B. 64%
C. 74%
D. 84%
Answer: Option D

r dry = r/ (1+w).
r dry = (86.4/60) =1
44r = 2.52.
Water content = 25%.
Dry = Grw/(1+e)e = 75%.
r = (G+ESR)row/(1+e).
So degree of saturatio
n = 84%.

98. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A.
O.M.C. refers to the moisture
corresponding to the maximum point
on the moisture content dry density
curve
B.
The line which shows moisture content
dry density relation for soil containing
a constant percentage of air voids, is
known as air void line
C. The weight of hammer used for
compaction test is 25 kg
D. The free fall of hammer for
compaction is 30.5 cm
E. All the above.

99.The passive earth pressure of a soil, is
proportional to (where φ is the angle of
internal friction of the soil.)
A. tan (45° - φ)
B. tan (45° + φ)
C. tan 2 (45° - φ
D. tan 2 (45° + φ)
Answer: Option D

100. If a soil undergoes a change in shape and
volume by application of external loads over it,
but recovers its shape and volume
immediately after removal of the load, the
property of the soil is said to be
A. Resilience of soils
B. Elasticity of soils
C. Compressibility of soils
D. None of these.
Answer: Option B

12/08/2017

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51. The desirable camber for straight cement
concrete roads, is
A. 1 in 33 to 1 in 25
B. 1 in 40 to 1 in 33
C. 1 in 150 to 1 in 140
D. 1 in 160 to 1 in 140
E. none of these.
Answer: Option D

52. Minimum permissible speed on high speed
roads, is decided on the basis of
A. 15 percentile cumulative frequency
B. 20 percentile cumulative frequency
C. 30 percentile cumulative frequency
D. 40 percentile cumulative frequency.
Answer: Option A

53. The ideal shape of a transition curve, is
A. clothoid
B. cubic spiral
C. cubic parabola
D. lamniscate
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A

54. At a road junction, 7 cross conflict points are
severe if
A. both are one-way roads
B. both are two-way roads
C. one is two-way road and other is one-
way road
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C

55. To indicate proper control of consistency of a
freshly mixed concrete for pavement
construction, the slump should be between
A. 3 to 5 cm
B. 4 to 6 cm
C. 5 to 7 cm
D. 7 to 10 cm
E. 10 to 12 cm
Answer: Option D

56. Driving vehicles on wet surfaced roads, is
dangerous because it may
A. skid
B. slip
C. overturn
D. all the above.
Answer: Option B

57. If D is the degree of a curve, the percentage
reduction of gradient, is
A. 0.01 D
B. 0.02 D
C. 0.03 D
D. 0.04 D
E. 0.005 D
Answer: Option D

58. Any gradient on a road is said to be an
exceptional gradient, if it is
A. more than ruling gradient
B. less than average gradient
C. more than floating gradient
D. less than minimum gradient or more
than maximum gradient.
Answer: Option D

59. The absolute minimum sight distance required
for stopping a vehicle moving with a speed of
80 km ph, is
[A]. 120 m
[B]. 200 m
[C]. 640 m
[D]. none of these.
Answer: Option A
SSD = lag distance+braking distance.
= v.t + v^2/2gf.
= 22.22*2.5 + (22.2)^2/(2*9.81*0.35).
= 126.5 (near to 120) So answer is (a)120m.
Where v is in m/s and t = reaction time(2.5sec
acc. to ERA
60. Along high ways confirmatory route markers
are generally fixed
A. before the crossing on the left side
B. after the crossing on the left side
C. before the crossing on the right side
D. after the crossing on the right side.
Answer: Option B
61. Length of vehicles does not affect
A. extra widening
B. minimum radius of turning
C. passing sight distance
D. width of shoulders
E. none of these.
Answer: Option D

62. Road width 8.8 m of two lane National
highways or State highways in mountainous
terrain
[A]. excludes the width of parapet (0.6 m)
[B]. excludes the width of side drain (0.6
m)
[C]. excludes the width of parapet
and side drain
[D]. includes the width of parapet and
side drain
Answer: Option C

63. Transverse joints are provided at distances
varying from
A. 10 m to 15 m
B. 12 m to 18 m
C. 16 m to 24 m
D. 17 m to 27 m
E. 25 m to 35 m
Answer: Option D
64. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. Long tangent sections exceeding 3 km
in length should be avoided
B.
Curve length should be at least 150
metres for a deflection angle of 5
degress
C.
For every degree decrease in the
deflection angle, 30 metre length of
curve to be increased
D. If the deflection angle is less than 1°,
no curve is designed
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

66. The advantage of providing superelevation on
roads, is
A. higher speed of vehicles
B. increased volume of traffic
C. reduced maintenance cost of the roads
D. draining off rain water quickly
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
67. The shape of a vertical curve, is
A. parabolic
B. elliptical
C. circular
D. spiral
E. all the above.
Answer: Option A

68. To prevent movement of moisture from
subgrade to road pavement at the same level
as that of water-table, thickness of a cut off
layer of coarse sand, is
A. 15 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 45 cm
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A

69. For maximum strength and durability
minimum percentage of cement, by weight is
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
E. 33%
Answer: Option D

70. Camber in pavements is provided by
A. straight line method
B. parabola method
C. straight at the edges and parabolic at
the crown
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

71. The minimum design speed of various types
of highways in plain terrain is the same as the
ruling design speed of
A. rolling terrain
B. mountainous terrain
C. steep terrain
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A

72. Passing zones are generally not provided on
A. summit curves
B. horizontal curves
C. two lane highways
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

73. The normal road width of National and State
highways
[A]. is kept 45 m
[B]. in plain and rolling terrain built-up
area, is 30 m
[C]. in mountainous built-up area is 20 m
[D]. All the above.
Answer: Option D
74. The extra widening of pavements
recommended by Ethiopian Road Authority (ERA) for
hill roads having radius 150 metres, is
A. 1.5 m
B. 1.0 m
C. 0.5 m
D. 0.0 m
E. 2.0 m
Answer: Option D

75. The steepest gradient permitted on roads
which, in ordinary conditions, does not exceed,
is known
A. ruling gradient
B. maximum gradient
C. exceptional gradient
D. floating gradient
E. all the above.
Answer: Option B

76. For night travel, the length of a valley curve
should be such that the head light beam
distance is the same as
A. stopping sight distance
B. overtaking sight distance
C. sum of (a ) and ( b )
D. difference of ( a ) and (b )
Answer: Option A

77. Stability of hill slopes depends upon
A. nature of the slope
B. angle of the slope
C. geological conditions
D. ground water conditions
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

78. Selection of the routes, of highways depends
upon
A. feasibility of attaining ruling gradient
B. avoidance of cutting hard rocks
C. minimum number of bridges
D. minimum possible length of alignment
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

79. The first stage of deciding the alignment of a
hill road, is
A. reconnaissance
B. detailed survey
C. trace-out
D. preliminary survey.
Answer: Option A

80. While designing hair pin bends on higways,
the minimum
A. designed speed is 20 km/hour
B. gradient is 1 in 40
C. gradient is 1 in 200
D. superelevations is 1 in 10
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E

81. Cement grouted pavement is classified as
A. rigid pavement
B. semi-rigid pavement
C. flexible pavement
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B

82. Intermediate catch water drains are provided
only, if
A. catchment area of the watershed above
road is large
B. intensity of rainfall is heavy
C. single catch water drain is inadequate
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
83. Pick up the correct statement from the
following:
A. Minimum desirable width of medians
on rural highways is 5 metres
B. Minimum width of medians should be
3 metres
C. On long bridges and viaducts, the
width of medians should be 1.5 m
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
84. Floating gradients are generally provided
A. along maximum gradients
B. along minimum gradients
C. at summit curves
D. at valley curves
E. every where.
Answer: Option C

85. Raising of outer edge of a road with respect
to inner edge, is known
A. super elevation
B. cant
C. banking
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

86. Width of the shoulders of carriage way is
generally kept
[A]. 100 cm
[B]. 125 cm
[C]. 150 cm
[D]. 200 cm
[E]. 250 cm
Answer: Option E

87. The inventor of road making as a building
science, was
A. Sully
B. Tresguet
C. Telford
D. Macadam.
Answer: Option A
88. Area of steel required per metre width of
pavement for a length of 20 m for design
wheel load 6300 kg and permissible stress in
steel 1400 kg/cm 2 , is
[A]. 70 kg/sq cm
[B]. 80 kg/sq cm
[C]. 90 kg/sq cm
[D]. 100 kg/sq cm
Answer: Option C
At = ( load/stress)*length.
At= (6300/1400)*20.
At = 90 cm2.

89. Design of horizontal curves on highways, is
based on
A. design speed of vehicles
B. permissible friction on the road surface
C. permissible centrifugal ratio
D. permissible maximum super-elevation
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

90. If no super elevation is provided on a road
along curves, pot holes may develop at
A. inner edge of the road
B. outer edge of the road
C. centre of the road
D. no where on the road.
Answer: Option B

91. Enoscope is used to determine
A. spot speed
B. average speed
C. travel time
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
92. The width of road pavements, depends upon
A. width of traffic lane
B. number of traffic
C. width of median strip
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D

93. The minimum vertical clearance of
overhanging cliffs or any other structure above
the surface of a hill road, should be
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 6 m
E. 4.5 m
Answer: Option C

94. Speed regulations on roads is decided on the
basis of
A. 60 percentile cumulative frequency
B. 75 percentile cumulative frequency
C. 80 percentile cumulative frequency
D. 85 percentile cumulative frequency.
Answer: Option D

95. Reconnaissance is best done with the help of
A. aerial photographic survey
B. condastral surveys
C. topographical surveys
D. triangulation surveys
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A

96. The usual width of side drains along Highways
in hilly region, is
A. 50 cm
B. 60 cm
C. 70 cm
D. 80 cm
E. 100 cm
Answer: Option B
97. Normal formation width of a hill road for one-
way traffic, is
A. 3.6 m
B. 4.8 m
C. 6.6 m
D. 7.2 m
E. 8 m
Answer: Option B

98. The most commonly adopted method to
provide super-elevation on roads, is by
pivoting the road surface about
A. outer edge so that the inner edge is
lowered
B. crown so that outer edge is raised and
inner edge is lowered
C. inner edge so that outer edge is raised
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C

99. Minimum thickness of the base of a flexible
pavement, is
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 25 cm
E. 30 cm.
Answer: Option A

100. One-way streets are generally provided in
crowded cities as, these
A. are inexpensive means of traffic flow
B. reduce delays to vehicles
C. permit higher speed
D. reduce the number of accidents
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E

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